Inclusive and exclusive -m vs -f -nc vs -b

Rínor #3227

I am reading throught he subject suffixes grammer on Eldamo page. I see the evolution from 1962 to 1969. Let's take the verb achar (to avenge) using that chart the 1st person plural would be acharif for exclusive and acharib for inclusive correct? And we would refrain from using -m and -nc?

Ellanto #3228

Forgetting i-affection - these should be echerif, echerib.

Pronouns are a highly debatable topic... But yes, it is fairly clear (to my mind, at any rate) that Tolkien used -f, -b for 1st person plural in the latest attested sources, so I recommend using those.

The -m and -nc suffixes are not completely without use though. They fit as direct cognates of the Quenya 1st person dual suffixes -mme and -nque, respectively. The dual suffixes would be archaic at most, but theoretically usable nonetheless.

Therefore:

  • -f: 1st pl. exclusive.

  • -b: 1st pl. inclusive.

And archaically:

  • -m: 1st dual exclusive.

  • -nc: 1st dual inclusive.